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1. A benefit of open brass architecture is that it A. facilitates interoperability. B. facilitates the consolidation of proprietary comp atomic number 53nts. C. get out be a basis for volume discounts from equipment marketers. D. all in allows for the pass awaying of more(prenominal) economies of scale for equipment. upshot A occupation Open administrations atomic number 18 those for which suppliers post comp iodinents whose interfaces atomic number 18 defined by prevalent quantitys, thus facilitating interoperability mingled with systems made by different sellers. In contrast, closed system components be built to proprietary standards so that some other suppliers systems suffer non or leave non interface with existing systems. . An IS great dealvasor discovers that developers yield operator greet shot to the restraint line of a payoff surroundings operating system. Which of the future(a) look intos would stovepipe mitigate the jeopardize of un n onice and illegitimate chopine mixtures to the production environment? A. Commands typed on the command line argon lumberged B. Hash let onstones be metric periodically for programs and matched against chop up discovers calculated for the virtually recent authorized versions of the programs C. entrance fee to the operating system command line is granted through an gateway restriction tool with preapproved rights D.Softw ar teaching tools and compilers engage been removed from the production environment resultant B credit line The matching of hash keys over age would allow divulgeion of alterations to files. election A is anomalous beca make economic consumption of having a logarithm is non a pull wires, studying the log is a realize. Choice C is incorrect because the doorway was al avery grantedit does non matter how. Choice D is wrong because files enkindle be copied to and from the production environment. 3. In the context of good information suret y politics, the aboriginal exceptt of value throw in the towely is to A. perfect security investments in support of seam musical arrangement object glasss.B. implement a standard set of security commits. C. institute a standards- found antecedent. D. implement a round-the-clock improvement culture. dissolvent A greenback In the context of give-up the ghost information security boldness, value speech communication is implemented to curb optimisation of security investments in support of military control objectives. The tools and techniques for implementing value delivery accommo envision instruction execution of a standard set of security pr turningices, institutionalization and commoditization of standards-based solutions, and implementation of a continuous improvement culture considering security as a a notwithstanding, non an cause. 4.During a review of a pileiness persistency scheme, an IS heargonr detect that the tiptop at which a situation is decl argond to be a crisis has non been defined. The MAJOR venture associated with this is that A. mind of the situation whitethorn be delayed. B. execution of the catastrophe recovery fancy could be extend to. C. nonification of the teams top executive non occur. D. potential crisis recognition might be in in movement(p). upshot B billhook Execution of the trading perseverance excogitation would be wedge if the presidential term does non know when to declargon a crisis. Choices A, C and D be steps that must be performed to know whether to declargon a crisis.Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessity in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis forethought pick up to be nonified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having solvent teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster. 5. When implementing an IT i nstitution framework in an institution the roughly master(prenominal) objective is A. IT fusion with the argumentation. B. line of work. C. value realization with IT. D. enhancing the return on IT investments. help A peak The goals of IT brass are to improve IT writ of execution, to deliver optimum trading value and to chink regulatory compliance. The key practice in support of these goals is the strategical continuative of IT with the telephone line (choice A). To achieve line upment, all other choices need to be even to business practices and strategies. 6. When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a unified WAN, an IS tender should expect to find A. an integrated aids digital meshing (ISDN) information link. B. duty engineering. C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) figureion of info.D. analog phone terminals. supply B descent To examine that quality of improvement requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide are a entanglement (WAN) should be protected from packet liberationes, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the profit performance can be get outd utilize statistical techniques much(prenominal) as profession engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital earnings (ISDN) entropy link would non provide the quality of services inevitable for bodied VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless entanglementing.The VoIP phones are usually attached to a incarnate local area net income (LAN) and are not analog. 7. An IS listener selects a maker for a penetration running play that provide be carried out by a technical specialist. Which of the quest is most(prenominal) important? A. The tools use to conduct the canvass B. Certifications held by the IS hearer C. chest from the selective information possessor of the waiter D. An intrusion espial system (IDS) is enabled make out C differentiate The data owner should be informed of the take chancess associated with a penetration test, what types of tests are to be conducted and other pertinent details. all other choices are not as important as the data owners responsibility for the security of the data assets. 8. Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? A. Increases the dependence on one employee B. Does not assist in succession planning C. unitary employee whitethorn know all images of a system D. Does not tending in achieving a persistency of operations adjudicate C strain When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any soul knowing all parts of a system and what exposures this may cause. Cross-training has the profit of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning.It also provides al class for effect in the event of absence for any intellectual and on that pointby facilitates the persistence of operations. 9. The use of digital tinges A. requires the u se of a one- quantify countersign generator. B. provides encryption to a subject. C. soundates the man-made lake of a gist. D. ensures mental object secretity. manage C line of descent The use of a digital signature verifies the identity of the vector, moreover does not encrypt the whole message, and hence is not enough to ensure confidentiality. A one-time countersign generator is an option, that is not a requirement for employ digital signatures. 0. A retail sacking has introduced radio frequency appellative (RFID) tags to create unique serial numbers racket for all products. Which of the following is the PRIMARY fearfulness associated with this initiative? A. Issues of privacy B. Wavelength can be absorbed by the gentleman body C. RFID tags may not be removable D. RFID eliminates line-of-sight reading ANSWER A utterance The buyer of an item will not necessarily be aware of the figurehead of the tag. If a tagged item is paid for by credit card, it would be possi ble to tie the unique ID of that item to the identity of the purchaser.Privacy violations are a significant concern because RFID can carry unique identifier numbers. If desired it would be possible for a firm to track individuals who purchase an item containing an RFID. Choices B and C are concerns of less importance. Choice D is not a concern. 11. A overturn recovery time objective (RTO) results in A. higher(prenominal) disaster tolerance. B. higher cost. C. wider interruption windows. D. more permissive data loss. ANSWER B NOTE A recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the possessable downtime in role of a flicker of operations. The lower the RTO, the higher the cost of recovery strategies.The lower the disaster tolerance, the narrower the interruption windows, and the lesser the permissive data loss. 12. During the requirements definition cast of a software education vomit, the aspects of software interrogation that should be overcompensateed are growth A. test data covering unfavourable lotions. B. detailed test plans. C. quality self-confidence test specifications. D. exploiter acceptance interrogatory specifications. ANSWER D NOTE A key objective in any software ripening stomach is to ensure that the create software will meet the business objectives and the requirements of the user.The users should be involved in the requirements definition phase of a nurture purpose and user acceptance test specification should be developed during this phase. The other choices are generally performed during the system testing phase. 13. The demote drool rule for protecting a ne devilrk from world utilise as an amplifier in a denial of service (DoS) attack is to deny all A. outgoing traffic with IP source verbalisees external to the ne dickensrk. B. entryway traffic with discernible spoofed IP source addresses. C. incoming traffic with IP options set.D. incoming traffic to detailed hosts. ANSWER A NOTE Outgoing traffic with an IP source add ress different than the IP range in the communicate is in well-grounded. In most of the eludings, it signals a DoS attack originated by an essential user or by a previously compromised internal machine in both cases, applying this filter will stop the attack. 14. What is the BEST succour dodge for a large database with data supporting online gross sales? A. periodical full stomachup with daily incremental backup B. unremarkable full backup C. Clustered servers D. Mirrored hard records ANSWER ANOTE Weekly full backup and daily incremental backup is the best backup strategy it ensures the ability to recover the database and yet reduces the daily backup time requirements. A full backup ordinarily requires a couple of hours, and accordingly it can be impractical to conduct a full backup every day. Clustered servers provide a spare touch capability, but are not a backup. Mirrored hard disks will not help in case of disaster. 15. Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks? A. Session keys are dynamicB. Private bilaterally symmetrical keys are used C. Keys are static and shared D. Source addresses are not encrypted or au pastticated ANSWER A NOTE WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys ( said(prenominal) key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP. 16. The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to A. encourage optimal use of IT. B. reduce IT costs. C. modify IT resources across the governing body. D. centralize control of IT. ANSWER ANOTE IT governance is intended to ready the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise. It is different for every enterprise. step-down IT costs may not be the best IT governance effect for an enterprise. Decentralizing IT resources across the brass instrument is not always desired, although it ma y be desired in a decentralized environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise desiring a single(a) point of customer contact. 17. The of import purpose of a transaction examine trail is toA. reduce the use of repositing media. B. determine accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. C. help an IS tender examine transactions. D. provide useable information for capacity planning. ANSWER B NOTE Enabling audit trails aids in establishing the accountability and responsibility for processed transactions by tracing them through the information system. Enabling audit trails increases the use of disk space. A transaction log file would be used to trace transactions, but would not aid in determining accountability and responsibility.The objective of capacity planning is the efficient and good use of IT resources and requires information such as CPU utilization, bandwidth, number of users, etc. 18. An IS attender invited to a breeding view meeting notes that no bulge risks birth been documented. When the IS attendee raises this skip, the tolerate conductor responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start cushioning the control, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate reception of the IS attendee would be to A. tress the importance of spending time at this point in the attend to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. B. accept the disgorge managers position as the interpret manager is accountable for the force of the project. C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. D. inform the project manager that the IS attendant will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. ANSWER A NOTE The volume of project risks can typically be set originally a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be post in outer space to deal with these risks.A project should subscribe a clear link back to embodied strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting merged strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been force by risks is misguided. Risk wariness necessitate to be foregoing looking allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a bereavement of risk attention.With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be gossiped and encouraged to comment when they believe sunrise(prenominal) risks study emerged or risk priorities incur revisiond. The IS attendant has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an supererogatory and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 19. A data sharpen has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is approximately important to protect the computing assets in the nerve centre?A. Badge commentators are installed in locations where tampering would be noticed B. The ready reckoner that controls the badge system is backed up frequently C. A process for promptly deactivating mixed-up or stolen badges exists D. All badge entry attempts are logged ANSWER C NOTE Tampering with a badge reader cannot open the door, so this is irrelevant. Logging the entry attempts may be of extra value. The biggest risk is from unauthorized individuals who can enter the data center, whether they are employees or not. Thus, a process of deactivating lost or stolen badges is important.The configuration of the system does not flip-flop frequently, therefore frequent backup is not required. 20. Which of the following would baby the independence of a quality assurance team? A. Ensur ing compliance with discipline modes B. Checking the testing assumptions C. Correcting coding errors during the testing process D. Checking the reckon to ensure straight-laced documentation ANSWER C NOTE Correction of enter should not be a responsibility of the quality assurance team as it would not ensure segregation of duties and would impair the teams independence. The other choices are valid quality assurance employments. 1. Which of the following is the BEST type of program for an organization to implement to aggregate, correlate and store different log and event files, and then produce weekly and monthly scores for IS auditors? A. A security information event management (SIEM) product B. An open-source correlation engine C. A log management tool D. An extract, transform, load (ETL) system ANSWER C NOTE A log management tool is a product intentional to aggregate events from many log files (with distinct formats and from different sources), store them and typically corre late them offline to produce many reports (e. . , exception reports showing different statistics including anomalies and mirthful activities), and to answer time-based queries (e. g. , how many users strike entered the system between 2 a. m. and 4 a. m. over the past three weeks? ). A SIEM product has some equal features. It correlates events from log files, but does it online and normally is not oriented to storing many weeks of historic information and producing audit reports. A correlation engine is part of a SIEM product. It is oriented to making an online correlation of events.An extract, transform, load (ETL) is part of a business intelligence system, dedicated to extracting operational or production data, transforming that data and fill them to a central repository (data warehouse or data mart) an ETL does not correlate data or produce reports, and normally it does not have extractors to read log file formats. 22. To ensure stylemark, confidentiality and integrity of a m essage, the sender should encrypt the hash of the message with the senders A. in the public eye(predicate) key and then encrypt the message with the receivers private key. B. private key and then encrypt the message with the receivers public key.C. public key and then encrypt the message with the receivers public key. D. private key and then encrypt the message with the receivers private key. ANSWER B NOTE Obtaining the hash of the message ensures integrity signing the hash of the message with the senders private key ensures the authenticity of the origin, and encrypting the resulting message with the receivers public key ensures confidentiality. The other choices are incorrect. 23. An IS auditor observes a weakness in the memorialise management system at a data center in that some parameters are set to bypass or ignore tape header records.Which of the following is the virtually utile compensating control for this weakness? A. scaffolding and job set up B. Supervisory review of logs C. Regular back-up of tapes D. Offsite warehousing of tapes ANSWER A NOTE If the IS auditor finds that there are effective staging and job set up processes, this can be recognised as a compensating control. Choice B is a detective control while choices C and D are corrective controls, none of which would serve as good compensating controls. 24. What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization implements remote virtual private network (VPN) door to its network?A. cattish compute could be spread across the network B. VPN logon could be spoofed C. transaction could be sniffed and decrypted D. VPN gateway could be compromised ANSWER A NOTE VPN is a mature technology VPN devices are hard to break. However, when remote irritate is enabled, malevolent enrol in a remote client could spread to the organizations network. though choices B, C and D are security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks. 25. The activation of an enterprises business continui ty plan should be based on influence criteria that address the A. duration of the outage. B. ype of outage. C. probability of the outage. D. cause of the outage. ANSWER A NOTE The insertion of a business continuity plan (action) should in general be based on the maximum period for which a business function can be disrupted before the disruption threatens the achievement of organisational objectives. 26. later on observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic analysis. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the police detective? A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain B. Guest account is enabled on the server C.Recently, 100 users were created in the server D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server ANSWER D NOTE Audit logs can provide prove which is required to proceed with an investigating and should not be disabled. For business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, n ot a concern. Having a guest account enabled on a system is a misfortunate security practice but not a forensic probe concern. Recently creating 100 users in the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern. 27. minimum password length and password compl consequencey verification are examples of A. etection controls. B. control objectives. C. audit objectives. D. control mental processs. ANSWER D NOTE Control procedures are practices established by management to achieve specific control objectives. give-and-take controls are tour of duty controls, not detective controls. Control objectives are declarations of judge results from implementing controls and audit objectives are the specific goals of an audit. 28. Which of the following is an advantage of the top-down court to software testing? A. Interface errors are identified early B. examination can be started before all programs are go off C.It is more effective than other testing approac hes D. Errors in critical modules are detected sooner ANSWER A NOTE The advantage of the top-down approach is that tests of major functions are conducted early, thus enabling the detection of interface errors sooner. The most effective testing approach is dependent on the environment organism tested. Choices B and D are advantages of the bottom-up approach to system testing. 29. After initial investigation, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that postiche may be present. The IS auditor should A. expand activities to determine whether an investigation is warranted.B. report the matter to the audit committee. C. report the possibility of fraud to top management and ask how they would like to proceed. D. consult with external well-grounded counsel to determine the course of action to be taken. ANSWER A NOTE An IS auditors responsibilities for detecting fraud include evaluating fraud indicators and deciding whether any additive action is necessary or whether an investigation should be pep uped. The IS auditor should notify the appropriate authorities within the organization unaccompanied if it has determined that the indicators of fraud are fitted to advocate an investigation.Normally, the IS auditor does not have authority to consult with external legal counsel. 30. As a driftr of IT governance, transparency of ITs cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through A. performance amount. B. strategic alignment. C. value delivery. D. resource management. ANSWER A NOTE death penalty measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver (process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance). Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans.Value delivery is well-nigh executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is intimately the optimal investment in and becoming management of critical IT resources. Trans parency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides information to the stake carriers on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives. 31. A technical virtuoso who was workings on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is doorwayible to the whole team.What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation? A. Audit logs are not enabled for the system B. A logon ID for the technical lead exempt exists C. Spyware is installed on the system D. A trojan is installed on the system ANSWER A NOTE Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event however, if not enabled, damage of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove.Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user and, again, without the straw man of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is chafeible to the whole group and, without the social movement of logs, investigation would be difficult. 32. When development a universal storage bus (USB) photoflash drive to transport confidential collective data to an offsite location, an effective control would be to A. carry the flash drive in a portable unafraid. B. see to it management that you will not lose the flash drive. C. equest that management deliver the flash drive by courier. D. encrypt the folder containing the data with a strong key. ANSWER D NOTE Encryption, with a strong key, is the most secure method for protecting the information on the flash drive. Carrying the flash drive in a portable safe does not guarantee the safety of th e information in the event that the safe is stolen or lost. No matter what measures you take, the chance of losing the flash drive still exists. It is possible that a courier might lose the flash drive or that it might be stolen. 33. The FIRST step in a booming attack to a system would be A. gathering information. B. aining rise to power. C. denying services. D. evading detection. ANSWER A NOTE Successful attacks start by gathering information about the target system. This is done in advance so that the assailant gets to know the target systems and their vulnerabilities. All of the other choices are based on the information gathered. 34. An IS auditor finds that conference dwells have active network ports. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure? A. The corporate network is using an intrusion saloon system (IPS) B. This part of the network is isolated from the corporate network C. A single sign-on has been implemented in the corporate network D.Antivirus software is in place to protect the corporate network ANSWER B NOTE If the conference rooms have bother to the corporate network, unauthorized users may be able to connect to the corporate network therefore, both networks should be isolated either via a firewall or being physically shed light ond. An IPS would detect possible attacks, but only after they have occurred. A single sign-on would ease authentication management. Antivirus software would reduce the impact of possible viruses however, unauthorized users would still be able to access the corporate network, which is the biggest risk. 5. While observing a full dissembling of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the posting systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infrastructural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure A. the salvage team is trained to use the telling system. B. the notification system provides for the recovery of the backup. C. redundancies are built into the notification system. D. the notification systems are stored in a vault. ANSWER CNOTE If the notification system has been severely impacted by the damage, redundancy would be the best control. The salvage team would not be able to use a severely damaged notification system, even if they are trained to use it. The recovery of the backups has no intention on the notification system and storing the notification system in a vault would be of little value if the building is damaged. 36. The human resources (HR) subdivision has developed a system to allow employees to enroll in benefits via a web site on the corporate Intranet. Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of the data?A. SSL encryption B. Two-factor authentication C. Encrypted session cookies D. IP address verification ANSWER A NOTE The main risk in this scenario is confidentiality, therefore the only option which would provide confidentiality is Secure Socket La yer (SSL) encryption. The remaining options deal with authentication issues. 37. Regarding a disaster recovery plan, the role of an IS auditor should include A. identifying critical coatings. B. determining the external service providers involved in a recovery test. C. observing the tests of the disaster recovery plan. D. etermining the criteria for establishing a recovery time objective (RTO). ANSWER C NOTE The IS auditor should be present when disaster recovery plans are tested, to ensure that the test meets the targets for restoration, and the recovery procedures are effective and efficient. As appropriate, the auditor should provide a report of the test results. All other choices are a responsibility of management. 38. Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure that access authorizations are still valid? A. Information owner provides authorization for users to gain access B. Identity management is integrated with human resource processes C.Information owners periodic ally review the access controls D. An authorization matrix is used to establish validity of access ANSWER B NOTE military group and departmental changes can result in authorization creep and can impact the effectiveness of access controls. Many times when personnel come out an organization, or employees are promoted, transferred or demoted, their system access is not richly removed, which increases the risk of unauthorized access. The best practices for ensuring access authorization is still valid is to integrate identity management with human resources processes.When an employee transfers to a different function, access rights are ad excepted at the same time. 39. The act systems of an organization using open-source software have no single recognized developer producing patches. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way of updating open-source software? A. Rewrite the patches and apply them B. grave review and application of getable patches C. contract in-house pat ches D. Identify and test suitable patches before applying them ANSWER D NOTE Suitable patches from the existing developers should be selected and tested before applying them.Rewriting the patches and applying them is not a correct answer because it would require skilled resources and time to rewrite the patches. Code review could be possible but tests need to be performed before applying the patches. Since the system was developed outside the organization, the IT department may not have the necessary skills and resources to develop patches. 40. Which of the following is a prevalent risk in the ontogenesis of end-user computing (EUC) applications? A. Applications may not be subject to testing and IT general controls B. Increased development and maintenance costsC. Increased application development time D. Decision-making may be impaired due to diminished re bodily process to requests for information ANSWER A NOTE End-user developed applications may not be subjected to an independen t outside review by systems analysts and frequently are not created in the context of a formal development methodology. These applications may lack appropriate standards, controls, quality assurance procedures, and documentation. A risk of end-user applications is that management may rely on them as much as traditionalistic applications.End-user computing (EUC) systems typically result in reduced application development and maintenance costs, and a reduced development cycle time. EUC systems normally increase flexibility and responsiveness to managements information requests. 41. The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organizations IT project portfolio is the A. IT budget. B. existing IT environment. C. business plan. D. investment plan. ANSWER C NOTE One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organizations strategic objectives.Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a companys overall IT strategy. IT strateg y should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but unoriginal to the importance of reviewing the business plan. 42. Which of the following is an attribute of the control self-assessment (CSA) approach? A. bighearted stakeholder involvement B. Auditors are the primary control analysts C. Limited employee lodge D. indemnity driven ANSWER ANOTE The control self-assessment (CSA) approach emphasizes management of and accountability for developing and monitoring the controls of an organizations business processes. The attributes of CSA include empowered employees, continuous improvement, extensive employee participation and training, all of which are representations of broad stakeholder involvement. Choices B, C and D are attributes of a traditional audit approach. 43. The BEST method for assessing the effectiveness of a business continuity plan is to review the A. plans and com pare them to appropriate standards. B. results from previous tests.C. apprehension procedures and employee training. D. offsite storage and environmental controls. ANSWER B NOTE Previous test results will provide evidence of the effectiveness of the business continuity plan. Comparisons to standards will give some assurance that the plan addresses the critical aspects of a business continuity plan but will not reveal anything about its effectiveness. canvassing requisite procedures, offsite storage and environmental controls would provide insight into some aspects of the plan but would fall short of providing assurance of the plans overall effectiveness. 4. An organization has just completed their annual risk assessment. Regarding the business continuity plan, what should an IS auditor recommend as the next step for the organization? A. Review and evaluate the business continuity plan for adequacy B. Perform a full simulation of the business continuity plan C. Train and educate e mployees regarding the business continuity plan D. Notify critical contacts in the business continuity plan ANSWER A NOTE The business continuity plan should be reviewed every time a risk assessment is completed for the organization. training of the employees and a simulation should be performed after the business continuity plan has been deemed comely for the organization. there is no reason to notify the business continuity plan contacts at this time. 45. Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from two-faced acts by employees? A. Business interruption B. Fidelity reporting C. Errors and omissions D. Extra get down ANSWER B NOTE Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from fallacious or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization.Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner c ommits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is intented to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization. 46. An IS auditor reviewing the risk assessment process of an organization should FIRST A. identify the reasonable threats to the information assets. B. dissect the technical and organizational vulnerabilities. C. identify and rank the information assets. D. evaluate the effect of a potential security breach.ANSWER C NOTE Identification and rank of information assetse. g. , data criticality, locations of assetswill set the tone or mount of how to assess risk in relation to the organizational value of the asset. Second, the threats set about each of the organizations assets should be analyzed according to their value to the organization. Third, weaknesses should be identified so that controls can be evaluated to determine if they mitigate the weaknesses. Fourth, analyze how these we aknesses, in absence of given controls, would impact the organization information assets. 47.An organization is using an enterprise resource management (ERP) application. Which of the following would be an effective access control? A. User- take permissions B. Role-based C. Fine-grained D. Discretionary ANSWER B NOTE Role-based access controls the system access by defining roles for a group of users. Users are assigned to the various roles and the access is granted based on the users role. User-level permissions for an ERP system would create a larger administrative overhead. Fine-grained access control is very difficult to implement and maintain in the context of a large nterprise. Discretionary access control may be set up or modified by the users or data owners, and therefore may create inconsistencies in the access control management. 48. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a A. corroboration authority. B. digital signature. C. digital certificate. D. registra tion authority. ANSWER C NOTE A digital certificate is an electronic document that declares a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message.A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i. e. , registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate. 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification? A. Smart card B. PasswordC. delineation identification D. Iris scan ANSWER D NOTE Since no two irises are alike, identification and verification can be done with confidence. There is no guarantee that a smart card is being used by the correct person since it can be shared, stolen or lost and found. Passwords can be shared and, if written down, carry the risk of discovery. Photo IDs can be forged or falsified. 50. A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password implant in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organizations data? A.Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe B. Apply role-based permissions within the application system C. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction D. dress up an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program ANSWER B NOTE When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a users role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation.Having a user input the ID and password for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire. 51. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when deciding areas of priority for IT governance implementation?A. cognitive operation maturity date B. Performance indicators C. Business risk D. Assurance reports ANSWER C NOTE Priority should be given to those areas which represent a cognise risk to the enterprises operations. The level of process maturity, process performance and audit reports will feed into the decision making process. Those areas that represent real risk to the business should be given priority. 52. An IS auditor has been asked to participate in project initiation meetings for a critical project. The IS auditors MAIN concern should be that the A. omplexity and risks associated with the project have been analyzed. B. resources needed throughout the project have been determined. C. project deliverables have been identified. D. a contract for external parties involved in the project has been completed. ANSWER A NOTE Understanding complexity and risk, and actively managing these throughout a project are critical to a successful outcome. The other choices, while important during the course of the project, cannot be fully determined at the time the project is initiated, and are often contingent upon the risk and complexity of the project. 3. Which of the following would MOST effectively control the habit of universal storage bus (USB) storage devices? A. Policies that require instant dismissal if such devices are found B. bundle for tracking and managing USB storage devices C. Administratively disabling the USB port D. Searching personnel for USB storage devices at the facilitys entrance ANSWER B NOTE software product for centralized tracking and monitoring would allow a USB usage constitution to be applied to each user based on changing business requirements, and would provide for monitoring and reporting exceptions to management.A policy requiring dismissal may result in increased employee attrition and business requirements would not be properly addressed. Disabling ports would be complex to manage and might not allow for impertinently business needs. Searching of personnel for USB storage devices at the entrance to a facility is not a practical solution since these devices are small and could be easily hidden. 54. When performing a database review, an IS auditor notices that some tables in the database are not normalized. The IS auditor should ne xt A. recommend that the database be normalized. B. review the conceptual data model.C. review the stored procedures. D. review the justification. ANSWER D NOTE If the database is not normalized, the IS auditor should review the justification since, in some situations, denormalization is recommended for performance reasons. The IS auditor should not recommend normalizing the database until further investigation takes place. Reviewing the conceptual data model or the stored procedures will not provide information about normalization. 55. Which of the following would be the GREATEST cause for concern when data are sent over the Internet using HTTPS communications protocol? A.Presence of spyware in one of the ends B. The use of a traffic sniffing tool C. The implementation of an RSA-compliant solution D. A symmetric cryptography is used for transmitting data ANSWER A NOTE Encryption using secure sockets layer/transport layer security (SSL/TLS) tunnels makes it difficult to intercept da ta in transit, but when spyware is running on an end users computer, data are hoard before encryption takes place. The other choices are related to encrypting the traffic, but the presence of spyware in one of the ends captures the data before encryption takes place. 56.At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following? A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects C. substantiating the controls in the delivered system are working D. Ensuring that test data are deleted ANSWER B NOTE A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects.An assessment of potential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implemen ting a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. visitation data should be retained for future lapse testing. 57. While reviewing the IT infrastructure, an IS auditor notices that storage resources are continuously being added. The IS auditor should A. recommend the use of disk mirroring. B. review the adequacy of offsite storage. C. eview the capacity management process. D. recommend the use of a compression algorithm. ANSWER C NOTE Capacity management is the planning and monitoring of computer resources to ensure that available IT resources are used efficiently and effectively. Business criticality must be considered before recommending a disk mirroring solution and offsite storage is unrelated to the problem. though data compression may save disk space, it could affect system performance. 58. Which of the following would be MOST important for an IS auditor to range when conducting a business continuity audit? A.Data backups are performed on a well-timed basis B. A recovery site is contracted for and available as needed C. Human safety procedures are in place D. restitution coverage is adequate and premiums are current ANSWER C NOTE The most important element in any business continuity process is the protection of human life. This takes precedence over all other aspects of the plan. 59. While reviewing sensitive electronic work paper, the IS auditor noticed that they were not encrypted. This could compromise the A. audit trail of the versioning of the work papers. B. approval of the audit phases.C. access rights to the work papers. D. confidentiality of the work papers. ANSWER D NOTE Encryption provides confidentiality for the electronic work papers. Audit trails, audit phase approvals and access to the work papers do not, of themselves, affect the confidentiality but are part of the reason for requiring encryption. 60. An IS auditor reviewing an accounts collectible system discovers that audit logs are not being reviewed. When this issue is raised with management the response is that additional controls are not necessary because effective system access controls are in place.The BEST response the auditor can make is to A. review the integrity of system access controls. B. accept managements statement that effective access controls are in place. C. dialect the importance of having a system control framework in place. D. review the background checks of the accounts payable staff. ANSWER C NOTE Experience has demonstrate that reliance purely on embarrassative controls is dangerous. Preventative controls may not prove to be as strong as anticipated or their effectiveness can deteriorate over time.Evaluating the cost of controls versus the quantum of risk is a valid management concern. However, in a high-risk system a comprehensive control framework is needed. Intelligent design should permit additional detective and correct ive controls to be established that dont have high ongoing costs, e. g. , automated interrogation of logs to highlight suspicious individual transactions or data patterns. Effective access controls are, in themselves, a positive but, for reasons sketch above, may not sufficiently compensate for other control weaknesses. In this situation the IS auditor needs to be proactive.The IS auditor has a total obligation to point out control weaknesses that give rise to insufferable risks to the organization and work with management to have these corrected. Reviewing background checks on accounts payable staff does not provide evidence that fraud will not occur. 61. A firewall is being deployed at a new location. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in ensuring a successful deployment? A. Reviewing logs frequently B. interrogatory and validating the rules C. Training a local administrator at the new location D. Sharing firewall administrative dutiesANSWER B NOTE A flaw in t he rule set can render a firewall insecure. Therefore, testing and validating the rules is the most important factor in ensuring a successful deployment. A regular review of log files would not start until the deployment has been completed. Training a local administrator may not be necessary if the firewalls are managed from a central location. Having multiple administrators is a good idea, but not the most important. 62. When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of A. xcessive transaction turnaround time. B. application interface failure. C. improper transaction authorization. D. nonvalidated jalopy totals. ANSWER C NOTE Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data vary (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not as significant. 63. The PRIMARY objective of implementin g corporate governance by an organizations management is to A. provide strategic direction. B. control business operations.C. align IT with business. D. implement best practices. ANSWER A NOTE Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized. Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations are directed and controlled. 64. To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to production code the BEST audit procedure is to A. xamine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. review change approved designations e stablished within the change control system. ANSWER C NOTE The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back to change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes.The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes. 65. When reviewing an active project, an IS auditor observed that, because of a reduction in anticipated benefits and increased costs, the business case was no longer valid. The IS auditor should recommend that the A. project be discontinued. B. business case be updated and possible corrective actions be identified. C. project be returned to the project sponsor for reapproval. D. project be ompleted and the business case be updated later. ANSWER B NOTE An IS auditor should not recommend discontinuing or complemental the project before reviewing an updated busin ess case. The IS auditor should recommend that the business case be kept current throughout the project since it is a key input to decisions made throughout the life of any project. 66. Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there have been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? A. Test data run B. Code review C.Automated code equation D. Review of code migration procedures ANSWER C NOTE An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements.A code review can be us ed as a mode of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 67. Doing which of the following during peak production hours could result in unanticipated downtime? A. Performing data migration or tape backup B. Performing clogive maintenance on electrical systems C. Promoting applications from development to the staging environment D. renewal a failed power supply in the core router of the data center ANSWER B NOTE Choices A and C are processing events which may impact performance, but ould not cause downtime. Enterprise-class routers have redundant hot-swappable power supplies, so replacing a failed power supply should not be an issue. Preventive maintenance activities should be scheduled for non-peak times of the day, and sort of during a maintenance window time period. A mishap or incident caused by a maintenance worker could result in unplanned downtime. 68. Which of the following is the MOST robust method f or disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information? A. Degaussing B. Defragmenting C. Erasing D. Destroying ANSWER DNOTE Destroying magnetic media is the only way to assure that confidential information cannot be recovered. Degaussing or demagnetizing is not sufficient to fully erase information from magnetic media. The purpose of de fragmentation is to eliminate fragmentation in file systems and does not remove information. Erasing or deleting magnetic media does not remove the information this method simply changes a files indexing information. 69. The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is A. cost of recovery. B. negative public opinion. C. geographic location. D. downtime.ANSWER D NOTE The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of a n incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident. 70. During the design of a business continuity plan, the business impact analysis (BIA) identifies critical processes and supporting applications. This will PRIMARILY influence the A. responsibility for maintaining the business continuity plan. B. criteria for selecting a recovery site provider.C. recovery strategy. D. responsibilities of key personnel. ANSWER C NOTE The most appropriate strategy is selected based on the relation back risk level and criticality identified in the business impact analysis (BIA. ), The other choices are made after the selection or design of the appropriate recovery strategy. 71. What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists? A. Repeatable but Intuitive B. delimit C. Managed and Measurable D. Optimized ANSWER B NOTE Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined. 2. During the system testing phase of an application development project the IS auditor should review the A. conceptual design specifications. B. vendor contract. C. error reports. D. program change requests. ANSWER C NOTE examen is crucial in determining that user requirements have been validated. The IS auditor should be involved in this phase and review error reports for their precision in recognizing erroneous data and review the procedures for resolving errors. A conceptual design specification is a document prepared during the requirements definition phase. A vendor ontract is prepared during a software acquisition process. Program change requests would normally be reviewed as a part of the postimplementation phase. 73. When reviewing procedures for emergency changes to programs, the IS auditor should verify that the procedures A. allow changes, which will be completed using after-the-fact follow-up. B. allow undocumented changes directly to the production program library. C. do not allow any em ergency changes. D. allow programmers permanent access to production programs. ANSWER A NOTE There may be situations where emergency fixes are required to settlement system problems.This involves the use of special logon IDs that grant programmers temporary access to production programs during emergency situations. Emergency changes should be completed using after-the-fact follow-up procedures, which ensure that normal procedures are retroactively applied otherwise, production may be impacted. Changes made in this fashion should be held in an emergency library from where they can be moved to the production library, following the normal change management process. Programmers should not directly alter the production library nor should they be allowed permanent access to production programs. 4. Though management has stated otherwise, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that the organization is using software that is not licensed. In this situation, the IS auditor should A. include th e statement of management in the audit report. B. identify whether such software is, indeed, being used by the organization. C. reconfirm with management the usage of the software. D. discuss the issue with senior management since reporting this could have a negative impact on the organization. ANSWER B NOTE When there is an indication that an organization might be using nlicensed software, the IS auditor should suffer sufficient evidence before including it in the report. With respect to this matter, representations obtained from management cannot be independently verified. If the organization is using software that is not licensed, the auditor, to maintain objectivity and independence, must include this in the report. 75. Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room? A. Damage of wires around computers and servers B. A power failure from static electricity C. Shocks from earthquakes D. Water flood damage ANSWER ANOTE The primary r eason for having a raised floor is to enable power cables and data cables to be installed underneath the floor. This eliminates the safety and damage risks posed when cables are placed in a spaghetti-like fashion on an open floor. Static electricity should be avoided in the machine room therefore, measures such as specially manufactured carpet or shoes would be more appropriate for static prevention than a raised floor. Raised floors do not address shocks from earthquakes. To address earthquakes, anti-seismic architecture would be required to establish a quake-resistant structural framework.Computer equipment needs to be protected against water. However, a raised floor would not prevent damage to the machines in the event of overhead water pipe leakage. 76. The network of an organization has been the victim of several intruders attacks. Which of the following measures would allow for the early detection of such incidents? A. Antivirus software B. Hardening the servers C. Screening r outers D. Honeypots ANSWER D NOTE Honeypots can collect data on precursors of attacks. Since they serve no business function, honeypots are hosts that have no authorized users other than the honeypot administrators.All activity directed at them is considered suspicious. Attackers will scan and attack honeypots, giving administrators data on new trends and attack tools, particularly malicious code. However, honeypots are a supplement to, not a replacement for, properly securing networks, systems and applications. If honeypots are to be used by an organization, qualified incident handlers and intrusion detection analysts should manage them. The other choices do not provide indications of potential attacks. 77. The purpose of a deadman door positive access to a computer facility is primarily to A. prevent piggybacking.B. prevent toxic gases from entering the data center. C. starve a fire of oxygen. D. prevent an excessively rapid entry to, or exit from, the facility. ANSWER A NOTE The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily intended to prevent piggybacking. Choices B and C could be accomplished with a single self-closing door. Choice D is invalid, as a rapid exit may be necessary in some circumstances, e. g. , a fire. 78. The MOST important reason for an IS auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence is to A. stick to with regulatory requirements. B. rovide a basis for drawing reasonable conclusions. C. ensure complete audit coverage. D. perform the audit according to the defined scope. ANSWER B NOTE The scope of an IS audit is defined by its objectives. This involves identifying control weaknesses relevant to the scope of the audit. Obtaining sufficient and appropriate evidence assists the auditor in not only identifying control weaknesses but also documenting and validating them. Complying with regulatory requirements, ensuring coverage and the execution of audit are all relevant to an audit but are not the reason why sufficient and relevant evidence is required. 9. During the audit of a database server, which of the following would be considered the GREATEST exposure? A. The password does not expire on the administrator account B. slackness global security settings for the database remain unchanged C. Old data have not been redactd D. Database activity is not fully logged ANSWER B NOTE Default security settings for the database could allow issues like blank user passwords or passwords that were the same as the username. Logging all database activity is not practical. Failure to purge old data may present a performance issue but is not an immediate security concern.Choice A is an exposure but not as serious as B. 80. An IS auditor finds that a DBA has read and write access to production data. The IS auditor should A. accept the DBA access as a common practice. B. assess the controls relevant to the DBA function. C. recommend the immediate repeal of the DBA access to production data. D. review user access authorizations approved by the DBA. ANSWER B NOTE It is good practice when finding a potential exposure to look for the best controls. Though granting the database administrator (DBA) access to production data might be a common practice, the IS auditor should evaluate the relevant controls.The DBA should have access based on a need-to-know and need-to-do basis therefore, revocation may remove the access required. The DBA, typically, may need to have access to some production data. Granting user authorizations is the responsibility of the data owner and not the DBA. 81. What should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when employees use portable media (MP3 players, flash drives)? A. The copy of sensitive data on them B. The copying of songs and videos on them C. The cost of these devices multipl